In a previous post asked this question because I have pondered and studied for years the dynamics of the Acts 2 outpouring. I need to give some context to my question as to why this might even be important.
I started my journey with Jesus in non-Pentecostal and non-charismatic circles. I could say that at the time it was “anti-Pentecostal” and gave no quarter to certain manifestations, especially the concept of unknown tongues. I tell you that because I sat in graduate school under that perspective and scholarship. So, I come at this from an academic foundation that teaches when the disciples were baptized with the Spirit, they supernaturally received the ability to speak in a KNOWN language not of their own. I have read Acts 2, what seems like thousands of times (maybe embellishment), and that interpretation has never answered all my questions or satisfied certain mysteries for me. For example: